Exam pattern for SSC Exams 2017

Dear Readers,SSC(Staff Selection Commission) has released the marking scheme and exam pattern.

High Level Reasoning Quiz for SBI PO 2017

Directions (Q.1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

Ten newly appointed minister of government of India, named of Arun Jaitely, Nejma Heptulla, Nirmala Sitaram, Rajnath Singh, Ramvilas Paswan, Venkaiah Naidu,Sadanand Gowda, Nitin Gadkari, Sushma Swaraj and Prakash Javedkar has taken foreign trip. All are going with different airlines. The name of the airlines are Fly Emirates, Air Asia, Lufthansa, Malaysian Airlines, British Airways, Kingfisher Airlines, Go Airways, Air India, Bhutan Airlines and Singapore Airlines, but not necessarily in the same order. All of the ministers are going to different destination. The destinations are Bangkok, UK, Singapore, Bhutan, Nepal, USA, Switzerland, Paataya, Malaysia and Colombo but not necessarily in the same order. No two ministers are going on the same destination.
There are seven gents and three ladies in the group.
A. Ramvilas Paswan is going to Bangkok by Air Asia.
B. Sushma Swaraj is not going to Colombo or Paataya.
C. Rajnath Singh is going by Fly Emirates. Venkaiah Naidu is going to Singapore by Go Airways.
D. Najma Heptulla is not going to Malaysia or Switzerland.
E. Sadanand Gowda is going to Paataya by British Airways.
F. The lady who is going to Switzerland has taken the Lufthansa Airline.
G. Prakash Javedkar is going to Malaysia by Kingfisher Airlines.
H. Nitin Gadkari going by Singapore Airlines and he is not going to UK or Nepal. The ladies is going to USA and travelling by Bhutan Airlines.
I. Nirmala Sitaram is going to Nepal and taken Malaysian Airlines.
J. The lady who is travelling by Bhutan Airlines is not going to Switzerland and the person who is travelling by Air India is going to Colombo.

1). Sushma Swaraj is travelling by which Airline ?
a) Go Airways
b) Air India
c) Lufthansa
d) Fly Emirates
e) None of these

2). Nitin Gadkari is travelling to which destination ?
a) Nepal
b) USA
c) Bhutan
d) Colombo
e) Switzerland

3). Prakash Javedkar is travelling by which Airline ?
a) Kingfisher
b) Singapore
c) Malaysian Airline
d) Fly Emirates
e) Air Asia

4). Which of the following combination is true ?
a) Rajnath Singh – UK
b) Venkaiah Naidu – Singapore
c) Nitin Gadkari – Bhutan
d) Najma Heptulla – USA
e) All of these

5). Rajnath Singh is travelling to which destination ?
a) USA
b) UK
c) Nepal
d) Bhutan
e) None of these

Directions (6-10): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Give answer
(a) if only assumption I is implicit.
(b) if only assumption II is implicit.
(c) if either assumption I or assumption II is implicit.
(d) if neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit; and
(e) if both assumptions I and II are implicit.

Q6.
Statement: If parking space is not available in office, park your vehicles in the mall and walk to the office.
Assumptions:
I. The mall is at a walk able distance from the office.
II. The office does not allow visitors’ vehicles in its premises.

Q7.
Statement: Farmers must immediately switch over to organic fertilizers from chemical fertilizers for better yield.
Assumptions:
I. All the farmers use only chemical fertilizers.
II. Organic fertilizers are readily available to the farmers.

Q8.
Statement: An advertisement by bank X – ‘Our interest rates for education loans are lower than those of any other bank.’
Assumptions:
I. Some other banks also provide education loans
II. Interest rates charged on education loans are different for different banks.

Q9.
Statement: For any kind of problem with your mobile phone, contact our helpdesk immediately.
Assumptions:
I. Helpdesk has a solution to all kinds of problems related to mobile phones or will guide accordingly.
II. Unless the problem is reported immediately, it cannot be solved.

Q10.
Statement: Use our medicine to fight the problem of obesity.
Assumptions:
I. Other slimming medicines available in the market do not reduce weight.
II. Obesity cannot be controlled without medicines.

Answers


1). c)
2). c)
3). a)
4). e)
5). b)
S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. I is implicit because only then does the direction to walk make sense. II is not implicit as the statement makes no distinction between the members of the office and the visitors.

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol.I is not implicit because of the word “all”. II is implicit because only then does the appeal to switch over make sense.

S8. Ans.(e)
Sol. The comparison is possible only when I is assumed. Same for II.

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. I is implicit because of the use of “any” in the statement. II is not implicit. It is possible that the problem can be solved even later. The instruction to contact “immediately” is only for the sake of convenience of the customer.

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. I would be implicit if the statement said “Use only our medicine…”. Again, the instruction to use is only of an advisory nature, not mandatory. Hence II is not implicit.

SSC CGL 2016 Cutoffs- Tier-I and Tier-II

Dear Readers, As you know SSC has declared the result of SSC CGL 2016 Exam. We are presenting cutoff marks of Tier I and Tier-II and number of candidates qualify for Tier-III exam.





Candidates are informed that :-

i) All the candidates declared qualified in Tier-II will be called for Tier-III/Document verification.

ii) All candidates qualified in more than 1 List need to appear for Skill Test(DEST/CPT)/document verification only once.

Candidates who do not attend document verification will not be considered for final selection.

iii) Revised options can be submitted by the candidates during the document verification, if they so desire, which will be final. If options are not revised, the option submitted in the application form will be accepted as final.

iv) Candidates declared qualified in List-II will be called for CPT. The candidates called for CPT will not be called for DEST separately and Module-I of CPT will be taken for evaluating their performance against DEST.

v) Candidates declared qualified in List-IV will be called for DEST.

4. Candidates qualified in different Lists will appear for :-
List-I - To appear in Tier-III/Tier-IV/Document Verification.
List-II- To appear in Tier-III/Tier-IV/Document Verification/CPT.
List-III- To appear in Tier-III/Tier-IV/Document Verification.
List-IV- To appear in Tier-III/Tier-IV/Document Verification/DEST.

5. Results in respect of three candidates bearing the following roll numbers have not been declared due to Court Orders - 2404012740, 9204037976, 8002162192

6. The lists herein are provisional. The candidates whose Roll numbers figure in the lists would be called for document verification subject to their fulfilling all the eligibility conditions/requirements as prescribed for the respective posts in the ‘Notice’ of Examination and also subject to thorough verification of their identity with reference to their photographs, signatures, handwritings, preference, etc., on the application forms, admission certificates, etc. If, on verification, it is found that any candidate does not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, he/she will not be allowed to attend the document verification.

7. The category of the candidates has been indicated along with their roll numbers. If any candidate finds a mismatch between his/her name, roll number and category, he/she must bring it to the notice of the respective Regional Office of the Commission immediately.

8. The schedule for Tier-III/Tier-IV/Document Verification/CPT/DEST will be available on concerned Regional Office’s website. Qualified eligible candidates, who do not receive call letters should contact the concerned Regional Offices of the Commission immediately.

9. Representations received from the candidates about the answer keys have been carefully examined and the answer keys have been modified wherever necessary. The modified answer keys have been used for evaluation.

10. The result is available on SSC's Website: http://ssc.nic.in. Marks of the candidates will be placed on the website shortly.

Click Here for SSC CGL 2016 Mains Result


Tags- SSC CGL 2016 Cutoffs- Tier-I and Tier-II

IBPS PO/MT-VI Score Card for Shortlisted Candidates

IBPS has released the CWE - PO / MT - VI Score Card for those candidates, who has appeared in Personal Interview (PI).

                                IBPS PO-VI Score of Shortlist Candidate Out

SSC CGL 2016 Tier 2 Exam(Mains) Result Out

Dear Readers, The Staff Selection Commission has decalred the result of SSC CGL 2016 Tier-II exam.
                                   SSC CGL Result 2016 Tier 2 Exam 

High Level Reasoning Puzzles for SBI PO

Directions (1-6): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight family members sitting around a circular table in a restaurant. All of them are facing the centre. Three of the family members are non-vegetarian and other are vegetatian. All the eight family members are government servants. They are Doctor, Engineer, IAS, IPS, Colonel, Scientist, Professor and Teacher, but not necessarily in the same order. There are two married couples, three brothers, two daughters, one granddaughter and one grandson in the group. Two of the female members in the group A and H order for the same food. The food ordered in the restaurant are Mixed Veg, Kofta, Matar-Paneer, Mutton Korma, Veg Biryani, Egg Biryani and Dal Makhani.

• G, a Doctor, is the head of the family, and is immediate neighbor of H and D.
• The granddaughter F is sitting third to the left of G. The grandmother of F is sitting on the immediate left of her. F is a vegetarian.
• E is sitting seconds right of his father G. He is a Colonel and orders for Dal Makhani.
• Only G’s daughter is sitting exactly between A and E. She orders for Veg Biryani and she is a Scientist.
• H is an IAS officer and B is an IPS. Neither likes Kofta.
• The son of H is sitting on the immediate left of his father. His father is an Engineer.
• C is a Scientist and is sitting on the immediate left of her mother. She orders for Veg Biryani.
• D, the husband of the IAS, ordered for Egg Biryani and his mother orders for Mutton Korma.
• The one who is an IPS sits second to the right of A, who is an immediate neighbor of the Scientist and the Professor.
• The Professor does not like Mixed Veg and the Doctor does not like Matar Paneer or Kofta.

Q1. Among the family members who is an IPS and what food does he/she order?
(a) G – Egg Biryani
(b) H – Mutton Korma
(c) B – Veg Biryani
(d) C – Dal Makhni
(e) Other than the given options

Q2. Find the correct combination of the family members’ professions and their liking for foods?
(a) Professor – Matar Paneer
(b) Scientist - Kofta
(c) Doctor – Veg Biryani
(d) Professor – Kofta
(e) Engineer – Dal Makhani

Q3. Which of the following combinations is correct?
(a) H – IAS – Matar Paneer
(b) E – IPS – Dal Makhani
(c) G – Doctor – Kofta
(d) A – Teacher – Mutton Korma
(e) Other than the given options

Q4. Who are mother and father of B and F respectively?
(a) A and G
(b) E and H
(c) C and D
(d) H and D
(e) F and E

Q5. Who among the following is daughter of G?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) H
(d) E
(e) None of the above

Q6. Which of the following is a group of only females?
(a) H, A, F and E
(b) H, C, A and F
(c) A, C and F
(d) C, E, H and F
(e) Other than the given options

Directions (7-10): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
(a) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) if the data even in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) if the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(e) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q7. Four friend Rohit, Avinash, Aman and Vikash are sitting at the corners of a square table and are facing the centre. Find Rohit’s position with respect to Vikash from his left.
I. Rohit is sitting second to the right of Vikash. Aman is sitting on the immediate left of Rohit.
II. Avinash is sitting second to the right of Aman. Rohit is sitting on the immediate right of Avinash.

Q8. A six-storey building with floors numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are occupied by five different people, namely A, B, C, D and E. The floor number 3 is vacant. On which of the floors does A live?
I. C lives on even-numbered floor. A lives on the floor immediately above C’s floor.
II. B lives on an even-numbered floor. B does not live above or below the vacant floor. Only one person lives between B’s and C’s floor. D lives immediately below E’s floor.

Q9. Six people Rahul, Rajeev, Raman, Ravi, Rohit and Raghu are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. What is Rajeev’s position with respect to Raghu?
I. Only two people sit between Raman and Rohit, Raghu sits second to the left of Rohit. Ravi and Rajeev are immediate neighbor of each other.
II. Rajeev is an immediate neighbor of Ravi. There are only two persons between Rajeev and Rahul. Raghu is an immediate neighbor of Rahul, but not of Ravi.

Q10. Tower A is in which direction with respect to Tower D?
I. Tower B is to the south of Tower A and to the east of Tower C.
II. Tower C is to the south of Tower D, at the same distance as Town B is from Tower A.


Answers

(1-6):







A – Mutton Korma
B – Matar Paneer
C – Veg Biryani
D – Egg Biryani
E – Dal Makhani
F – Kofta
G – Mixed Veg
H – Mutton Korma

1. Ans.(e)
Sol. B – Matar Paneer

2. Ans.(d)

3. Ans.(d)

4. Ans.(d)

5. Ans.(a)

6. Ans.(b)

7. Ans.(a)
Sol. From statement I.




Clearly, Rohit sits second to the left of Vikash. So statement I alone is sufficient.
From statement II.

Hence it is clear that Rohit is sitting second to the left of Vikash.
So, statement II is sufficient.
So, either statement I or II alone is sufficient.

8. Ans.(a)
Sol. From statement I.


Hence from statement I it is clear that A lives on the 5th floor.
From statement II.

From statement II it is clear that A lives on the fifth floor. Hence either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient.

9. Ans.(d)
Sol. From statement I.





From the statement it is not clear what is the exact position of Rajeev with respect to Raghu.
From statement II.

From statement II the position of Rajeev is not clear with respect to Raghu.
From I and II.



Clearly A is to the east of D. Hence statement I and II together are sufficient.

RBI Assistant 2016 Mains Cut Off Declared

Dear Readers,RBI has declared the cut-off for the Mains examination of RBI Assistant 2016 Recruitment.

                        

Banking Awareness Questions and Answers

Dear Readers, Banking Awareness Questions and Answers play important role in Banking exams. Around 50-60% of questions come from Banking Awareness which includes recent Banking updates also.


Banking Awareness Quiz for IBPS PO, Clerk, SBI PO,Clerk, IBPS RRB PO, Clerk, RBI Assistant and Other competitive exams.

89th Academy Awards (Oscar 2017)- List of Winners

The 89th Academy Awards ceremony, presented by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences (AMPAS), honored the best films of 2016, and took place on February 26, 2017, at the Dolby Theatre in Hollywood, Los Angeles, 5:30 p.m. PST. During the ceremony, AMPAS presented Academy Awards (commonly referred to as Oscars) in 24 categories. The ceremony, televised in the United States by ABC, was produced by Michael De Luca and Jennifer Todd and directed by Glenn Weiss. Comedian Jimmy Kimmel hosted the ceremony for the first time.


Moonlight won three awards, including Best Picture, and La La Land won the most awards of the ceremony, with six, after receiving a record-tying 14 nominations.

These are the winners of the 89th annual Academy Awards.

Best Picture - 'Moonlight' by Adele Romanski, Dede Gardner and Jeremy Kleiner

Best Actress in a Leading Role - Emma Stone for 'La La Land'

Best Actor in a Leading Role - Casey Affleck for 'Manchester By The Sea'

Best Director - Damien Chazelle for 'La La Land'

Best Adapted Screenplay - Barry Jenkins and Tarell Alvin McCraney for 'Moonlight'

Best Original Screenplay - Kenneth Lonergan for 'Manchester By The Sea'

Best Original Song - 'City Of Stars' from 'La La Land' by Justin Hurwitz, Benj Pasek and Justin Paul

Best Original Score - Justin Hurwitz for 'La La Land'

Best Cinematography - Linus Sandgren for 'La La Land'

Best Live Action Short - 'Sing' by Kristof Deak and Anna Udvardy

Best Documentary Short - 'The White Helmets' by Orlando Von Einsiedel and Joanna Natasegara

Best Film Editing - John Gilbert for 'Hacksaw Ridge'

Best Visual Effects
- Robert Legato, Adam Valdez, Andrew R Jones and Dan Lemmon for 'The Jungle Book'

Best Production Design - David Wasco and Sandy Reynolds-Wasco for 'La La Land'

Best Animated Feature - 'Zootopia' by Byron Howard, Rich Moore and Clark Spencer

Best Animated Short - 'Piper' by Alan Barillaro and Marc Sondheimer

Best Foreign Language Film
- 'The Salesman' by Asghar Farhadi

Best Actress in a Supporting Role - Viola Davis for 'Fences'

Best Sound Mixing - Kevin O'Connell, Andy Wright, Robert Mackenzie and Peter Grace for 'Hacksaw Ridge'

Best Sound Editing - Sylvian Bellemare for 'Arrival'

Best Documentary Feature - Ezra Edelman and Caroline Waterlow for 'O J: Made In America'

Ga Questions asked Syndicate Bank PO 2017-18 Exam-1st shift

Dear Readers, we are presenting General Awareness questions asked in Syndicate Bank PO 2017-18 Exam-1st shift 26th February 2017.

Syndicate Bank PO 2017-18 Exam Analysis II shift- 26th February 2017

Dear Readers, we are presenting exam Analysis of Syndicate Bank PO PGDBF 2017-18 (Shift-2) 26th February 2017.

Syndicate Bank PO PGDBF 2017-18 (Shift-1) exam Analysis

Dear Readers, we are presenting exam Analysis of Syndicate Bank PO PGDBF 2017-18 (Shift-1) .

SSC Quiz-English for CGL 2017

Directions (1-5): In this section item consists of a word or a phrase which is BOLD in the sentence given. It is followed by four words or phrases. Select the word or phrase which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the BOLD word or phrase.
                                                  

Uttar Pradesh Jal Nigam – UPJN Recruitment – 383 Routine Clerk & Steno Vacancies

Uttar Pradesh Jal Nigam (UPJN) invites application for the post of 383 Routine Clerk & Steno (Grade-IV). Apply Online before 27 December 2016 extended upto 29 February 2017.

Important Dates to Remember:
Starting Date for Submission of Online Application : 23.02.2017
Last Date for Submission of Online Application : 28.02.2017
Last Date for Submission of Application fee through Challan : 01.03.2017

UPJN Job Details :
Post Name : Routine Clerk
No. of Vacancy : 306 Posts
Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200/-
Grade Pay : Rs.1900/-
Post Name : Steno (Grade-IV)
No. of Vacancy : 77 Posts
Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200/-
Grade Pay : Rs.2800/-

Eligibility Criteria for UPJN Recruitment :
Educational Qualification :
For Routine Clerk : Candidates should have passed 12th Board or any recognized Board and typing speed in Hindi and English 25 and 30 wpm on Computer.

For Steno : Candidates should have passed 12th Board or any recognized Board and Steno speed in Hindi 80 wpm.

Age Limit : Minimum & Maximum Age limit is 18 to 40 years as on 01.08.2016.
Age of Relaxation : For SC/ST/ OBC Candidates 5 years (Only U.P. Domicile)

Selection Process : Selection will be through Written Test & Interview.

Application Fee :
For Unreserved (General) & OBC Category : Rs.600/-
For SC/ST Category : Rs.300/-
For PWD Category : Nil

Candidates submitted fee through SBI -E-collect OR Challan.

Current Affairs- National News 1st-25th February 2017

Dear Readers, we are presenting National Current Affairs of 1st February to 25th February 2017 for Bank and SSC exams.

SBI PO 2017 Exam Pattern and Syllabus

Highlights of SBI PO 2017 Exam Pattern & Syllabus




SBI PO exam pattern 2017 for preliminary and main exam is given in detail in following lines. Candidates must check below to know the exam pattern and prepare accordingly –

SBI PO 2017 Preliminary Exam Pattern

  • The online preliminary exam has 1-hour duration
  • The paper contains 100 multiple choice questions (MCQs)
  • The test carries as many as 100 marks
  • The sections are English Language, Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning Ability
SBI PO Preliminary Exam Pattern
SL.
Name of Test
No. of Questions
Marks
Duration
1.
English Language
30
30
Composite Time
of
1 hour

2.
Quantitative Aptitude
35
35
3.
Reasoning Ability
35
35
 
Total
100
100

SBI PO 2017 Main Exam Pattern

  • The online main exam is a total of 3-hour-30-minute duration paper
  • The 3-hour objective-type tests carry 200 marks
  • These tests are from English Language (Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension etc.), General Awareness, Marketing & Computers, Test of Data Analysis & Interpretation and Reasoning (High Level)
  • The descriptive test belongs to English Language (Letter Writing & Essay) will be of 30 minutes with 50 marks
SBI PO Mains Exam Pattern
Test
Name of test
No. of
Max.
Duration
Questions
Marks
   
I
Reasoning & Computer Aptitude
45
60
60 minutes
II
Data Analysis & Interpretation
35
60
45 minutes
III
General/Economy/Banking Awareness
40
40
35 minutes
IV
English Language
35
40
40 minutes
 
Total
155
200
3 hours
SBI PO Group Discussion & Interview:

The Phase III will carry a total of 50 marks. Group Discussion will be of 20 marks and Interview will be of 30 marks.

As negative marking is applicable for both preliminary and main exams, for every wrong answer marked by candidate, there will be a duduction of 1/4th of the mark allotted to that question as penalty.

SBI PO Syllabus 2017


Below are given the important topics which are covered under the syllabus of SBI PO 2017 -

SBI PO Syllabus
S.N.
Section
Topics
1
Reasoning & Computer Aptitude
Reasoning Aptitude
Analogy, Coding & decoding, Critical Reasoning, Data Sufficiency, Directions & Arrangements (Circular Arrangements), Sequential Output Tracing, Syllogism, Visual and Logical Reasoning, Puzzle & Blood Relation, Input Output & Number series, Series Completion, Statement & Argument, Passage & conclusion, Order & ranking

Computer Aptitude
Computer Hardware, Operating System concepts, Shortcut keys, MS Word, Excel, MS Power Point, Access, Internet & Networks, Basic Security Concepts, Latest Technologies

2
Data Analysis & Interpretation
Bar Graphs, Line Graphs, Pie-Charts, Quantitative Aptitude, Tables, Case Lets, Probability and Series

3
Quantitative Aptitude
Number System, Ranking & Time Sequence, Clocks and Calendars, Alphabet Test & Mathematical Operations, Boats and Streams, Roots and Average, Percentage, Profits & Loss, Time & distances and Time & Work, Partnership and Ratio & Proportion, Simple, Interest, Compound Interest, Allegation and Mixtures, Mensuartion and Volume & surface area, Problems on trains, Surds and Indices

4
General/Economy/Banking Awareness
General Awareness
Current Events, Sports, History, Geography, Culture, Indian Constitution, Technology & Research news and updates, India and its Neighbouring Countries news and updates

Financial Awareness
Marketing Aptitude, Economy, Banking & Finance

5
English Language
Close Passages, Faulty Construction, Jumbled Sentences, Reading Comprehension, Synonyms and Antonyms, Spotting Errors

6
Descriptive Exam
Essay Writing, Letter Writing, Paragraph Writing, Precise Writing, Reading Comprehension



SBI PO Previous Year Question Paper PDF Download

Dear Readers, In this post we  providing SBI PO Previous Year Question Paper PDF with solutions along with some model papers. SBI PO previous year PDF includes SBI PO papers of 2015,2016 and other old papers.

SSC English- Idioms and Phrases

Directions (1-15): An idiom and four possible meanings are given. Identify the meaning of the idiom from among the answer choices and mark its number as your answer.
                                           

UPSC Recruitment – Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2017

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) invites Application for the post of Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2017 for 980 Vacancies. Apply Online before 17 March 2017. 

IBPS Specialist Officer Interview Admit Cards Out

 IBPS has released the Interview call letter for the post of CWE-SPL-VI- recruitment of Specialist Officers (SO).

Current Affairs Quiz Collection PDF- January 2017

Dear Readers, Download Current Affairs Quiz Collection PDF for the month of January 2017. Current Affairs Quiz collection will help you in upcoming Bank Exams and other competitive exams.

SSC CGL 2017 Pre-exam- Reasoning Quiz(Answers Updated)

SSC CGL 2017 Pre-exam- Reasoning Quiz

Q1. In this question, there is a certain relation between two given words on one side of:: and one word is given on another side of:: while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the best alternative
Good : Bad : : Virtue : ?   
(a) Blame 
(b) Sin 
(c) Despair 
(d) Vice 


Q2. In this question, choose that set of numbers from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given set  (21, 51, 15)   
(a) (21, 30, 51) 
(b) (21, 35, 41) 
(c) (21, 51, 42) 
(d) (21,91, 35) 

Q3. In this question, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one. 
(a)  Sun 
(b) Moon 
(c) Star 
(d) Universe 

Q4. In this question, a number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank spaces. 
0.5, 1.5, 4.5, 13.5, ( )   
(a) 45.5 
(b) 39.5 
(c) 30.5 
(d) 40.5 

Q5. In this question, one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term. 
8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83 
(a) 13 
(b) 32 
(c) 47 
(d) 63 

Q6. In this letter series some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative. 
x _ az  _ y _ zx _ c _ 
(a) acbaz 
(b) yxbyz
(c) xycab 
(d) yzcab

Q7. If POND is coded as RSTL, how is HEAR written in that code? 
(a) GHIJ 
(b) GHIZ 
(c) JIGZ 
(d) JCLZ 

Q8. If eraser is called box, box is called pencil, pencil is called sharpener and sharpener is called bag, what will a child write with? 
(a) Eraser 
(b) Box 
(c) Pencil 
(d) Sharpener 

Q9. In a certain code language, '381' means 'Hari is honest'-, '162' means 'Shashi is intelligent' and ‘948' means 'Hari should go'. Which digit in that language means ‘honest' ? 
(a) 3 
(b) 8 
(c) 1 
(d) 9 

Q10. Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said, "his brother's father is the only son of my grandfather." How is the woman related to his man ? 
(a) Mother 
(b) Aunt 
(c) Sister  
(d) Daughter 

Q11. Dev walks 20 m towards North. He then turns left and walks 40 m. He again turns left and walks 20 m. Further, he moves 20 m after turning to the right. How far is he from his original position? 
(a) 20 m 
(b) 30 m 
(c) 50 m 
(d) 60 m 

Q12. The number of boys in a class is three times the number of girls. Which one of the following numbers cannot represent the total number of children in the class? 
(a) 48  '
(b) 44 
(c) 42 
(d) 40 

Q13. Statements: 
All sparrows are koels. 
No koel is parrot. 
Conclusions : 
I. No sparrow is parrot. 
II. Some sparrows are parrots 
III. All koels are sparrows. 
IV. Some parrots are sparrows. 
(a) Only I follows 
(b) None follows 
(c) Only II and III follow 
(d) Only II and IV follow 

Q14. Arrange the following items from general to particular: 
1. Animal 
2. Feline 
3. Leopard 
4. Mammal 
5. Vertebrate 
6. Cat 
(a) 1,5,4,2,3,6 
(b) 1,4,3,2,5,6 
(c) 1,3,5,4,2,6 
(d) 1,2,3,4,5,6 

Q15. In this question, different letters carries symbols as indicated below: 
R : Addition  S : Subtraction  T: Multiplication 
U: Division  V: Equal to  W : Greater than 
X: Less than 
Out of the four alternatives given in these questions, only one is correct according to the above letter symbols. Identify the correct one. 
(a) 24 U 3 R 2 S 2 W 8 
(b) 24 R 3 S 2 X 2 T 8  
(c) 24 S 3 X 2 T 2 U 8 
(d) 24 U 3 T 2 V 2 T 8  

Answers- SSC CGL 2017 Pre-exam- Reasoning Quiz
1-(d)
Sol.   The words in each pair are opposites of each other.
2-(d) 
Sol. In each set . (3rd number × 2 ) + lst number = 2nd number. 
3-(d)
Sol.  All except Universe form a part of the universe 
4-(d)
Sol.   Each term of the series is obtained by multiplying the preceding term by 3. 
Missing number = 13.5 x 3 =  40.5
5-(c)
Sol. The sequence is + 5, + 8, +11, +14, +17, +20 
So. 47 is wrong and must be replaced by (32 + 14) i.e. 46. 
6-(b)
Sol. The series is xyaz/xybz/xycz 
7-.(c)
Sol.   The first, second, third and fourth letters of the word are respectively moved two, four, six and eight letters forward to obtain the code. 
8-(d)
Sol.  The child will write with a 'pencil' and 'pencil' is called 'sharpener'. So, the child will write with a 'sharpener’. 
9-(a)
Sol.
'381' ->'Hari is honest'          ………(i)
'162' -> 'Shashi is intelligent' ……(ii)
‘948' -> 'Hari should go'          ……(iii)
In (i) and (ii), the common code digit is ‘1’ and the common word is ‘is’. 
In (i) and (iii), the common code digit is '8’ and the common word is 'Hari'. 
Thus, in (i), ‘3' means 'honest'. 
10-(c)
Sol.  Only son of her grandfather — Her father; 
man's brother's father — man's father. 
So, man's father is her father i.e.. She is the man's sister. 
11-















12-
Let number of girls = x and number of boys = 3x. 
Then, 3x + x = 4x , total number of students. 

Thus, to find exact value of x, the total number of students must be divisible by 4.
13-

14-
(a) 1,5,4,2,3,6 
(b) 1,4,3,2,5,6 
(c) 1,3,5,4,2,6 

(d) 1,2,3,4,5,6 

15-
(d)
Sol.  24 U 3 T 2 V 2 T 8  
24 ÷ 3 × 2 = 2 × 8

8 × 2 = 16